Solving $x^2-2x-3<0$ Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Solving inequalities with absolute valuesQuestions about solving inequality: $2 < frac3x+12x+4$Solving an inequality and multiplying by -1Why does the sign have to be flipped in this inequality?Why not always use the quadratic equationSolving trigonometric inequality for positive valuesStating that either root is zero in solving a quadratic equationSolving for $x$ in Quadratic EquationsSolving one quadratic equals anotherDoubt in law of reciprocal

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Solving $x^2-2x-3



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Solving inequalities with absolute valuesQuestions about solving inequality: $2 < frac3x+12x+4$Solving an inequality and multiplying by -1Why does the sign have to be flipped in this inequality?Why not always use the quadratic equationSolving trigonometric inequality for positive valuesStating that either root is zero in solving a quadratic equationSolving for $x$ in Quadratic EquationsSolving one quadratic equals anotherDoubt in law of reciprocal










2












$begingroup$


If i have to solve $x^2-2x-3<0$ I would do



$$x+1 < 0, quad x-3<0$$



and end up getting $x<-1$ and $x<3$. Why is it wrong to use the same inequality sign? Shouldn’t both of the linear equations formed from factorising the quadratic use the same inequality sign as the quadratic?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Did you try plugging some $x<-1$ into the original inequality? If you do that, I think you will agree that it doesn't work.
    $endgroup$
    – Hans Lundmark
    Apr 12 at 10:51










  • $begingroup$
    The answer you accepted doesn't address your question !
    $endgroup$
    – Yves Daoust
    Apr 12 at 12:15
















2












$begingroup$


If i have to solve $x^2-2x-3<0$ I would do



$$x+1 < 0, quad x-3<0$$



and end up getting $x<-1$ and $x<3$. Why is it wrong to use the same inequality sign? Shouldn’t both of the linear equations formed from factorising the quadratic use the same inequality sign as the quadratic?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Did you try plugging some $x<-1$ into the original inequality? If you do that, I think you will agree that it doesn't work.
    $endgroup$
    – Hans Lundmark
    Apr 12 at 10:51










  • $begingroup$
    The answer you accepted doesn't address your question !
    $endgroup$
    – Yves Daoust
    Apr 12 at 12:15














2












2








2





$begingroup$


If i have to solve $x^2-2x-3<0$ I would do



$$x+1 < 0, quad x-3<0$$



and end up getting $x<-1$ and $x<3$. Why is it wrong to use the same inequality sign? Shouldn’t both of the linear equations formed from factorising the quadratic use the same inequality sign as the quadratic?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




If i have to solve $x^2-2x-3<0$ I would do



$$x+1 < 0, quad x-3<0$$



and end up getting $x<-1$ and $x<3$. Why is it wrong to use the same inequality sign? Shouldn’t both of the linear equations formed from factorising the quadratic use the same inequality sign as the quadratic?







proof-verification inequality quadratics problem-solving






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Apr 12 at 11:50









YuiTo Cheng

2,58641037




2,58641037










asked Apr 12 at 10:38









Ubaid HassanUbaid Hassan

1125




1125











  • $begingroup$
    Did you try plugging some $x<-1$ into the original inequality? If you do that, I think you will agree that it doesn't work.
    $endgroup$
    – Hans Lundmark
    Apr 12 at 10:51










  • $begingroup$
    The answer you accepted doesn't address your question !
    $endgroup$
    – Yves Daoust
    Apr 12 at 12:15

















  • $begingroup$
    Did you try plugging some $x<-1$ into the original inequality? If you do that, I think you will agree that it doesn't work.
    $endgroup$
    – Hans Lundmark
    Apr 12 at 10:51










  • $begingroup$
    The answer you accepted doesn't address your question !
    $endgroup$
    – Yves Daoust
    Apr 12 at 12:15
















$begingroup$
Did you try plugging some $x<-1$ into the original inequality? If you do that, I think you will agree that it doesn't work.
$endgroup$
– Hans Lundmark
Apr 12 at 10:51




$begingroup$
Did you try plugging some $x<-1$ into the original inequality? If you do that, I think you will agree that it doesn't work.
$endgroup$
– Hans Lundmark
Apr 12 at 10:51












$begingroup$
The answer you accepted doesn't address your question !
$endgroup$
– Yves Daoust
Apr 12 at 12:15





$begingroup$
The answer you accepted doesn't address your question !
$endgroup$
– Yves Daoust
Apr 12 at 12:15











5 Answers
5






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

Ok I get your point.



Let's first assume



$$x^2-2x-3=0$$



$$(x+1)(x-3)=0$$



This is true when $x=-1$ or when $x=3$. That is, by equating each of the linear term with $0$ one by one.



Now let's come to



$$(x+1)(x-3)<0$$



So you are asking, to solve this why don't we do the same thing again, i.e. one by one making both the linear terms less than $0$.



But that's not the correct way to do it, because multiplying two negative numbers yields a positive number.



Suppose there are two variables $A$ and $B$ and it is given that,



$AB<0$



This is true when $A<0$ and $B>0$ because $-vetimes +ve=-ve$ or when $A>0$ and $B<0$ because $+vetimes -ve=-ve$.



Similarly



$$(x+1)(x-3)<0$$



Either when $x+1<0$ and $x-3>0$ or when $x+1>0$ and $x-3<0$. The former statement is absurd as there exist no real number which is less than $-1$ as well as greater than $3$. Hence the answer is $xin (-1,3)$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    This finally starting to make sense, but I have one more question : in the statement (x+1(x-3)<0 is it correct to divide both sides by x to get -3<0?
    $endgroup$
    – Ubaid Hassan
    Apr 12 at 13:22











  • $begingroup$
    @UbaidHassan its not sensible to divide by $x$ until and unless you know whether $x$ is positive, negative or zero. And even if you somehow know what x is, i don't know how you will get -3<0?
    $endgroup$
    – Loop Back
    Apr 13 at 7:16


















6












$begingroup$

Hint: Sketch the graph of $x²-2x -3$. Notice that it is zero when $x=-1$ and $x=3$. Then consider the following areas: $(-infty,-1)$, $(-1,3)$ and $(3,infty)$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    3












    $begingroup$

    Option:



    Completing the square:



    $(x-1)^2-4<0;$



    $(x-1)^2 <4;$



    $|x-1| <2;$



    $-1 < x <3.$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$




















      0












      $begingroup$

      No, because of the rule of signs.



      Anyway, there's a theorem on the sign of quadratic polynomials:




      Let $ax^2+bx+censpace (ane0$) a quadrattic polynomial with real coefficients. Then $ax^2+bx+c$ has the sign of $a$, except between its (real) roots, if any.







      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$




















        0












        $begingroup$

        $$ab<0iff a<0land b<0$$ is wrong. You can easily find counterexamples.



        The truth is



        $$ab<0iff (a<0land b>0)lor(a>0land b<0).$$



        A product is negative when the factors have opposite signs.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$













          Your Answer








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          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes








          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          4












          $begingroup$

          Ok I get your point.



          Let's first assume



          $$x^2-2x-3=0$$



          $$(x+1)(x-3)=0$$



          This is true when $x=-1$ or when $x=3$. That is, by equating each of the linear term with $0$ one by one.



          Now let's come to



          $$(x+1)(x-3)<0$$



          So you are asking, to solve this why don't we do the same thing again, i.e. one by one making both the linear terms less than $0$.



          But that's not the correct way to do it, because multiplying two negative numbers yields a positive number.



          Suppose there are two variables $A$ and $B$ and it is given that,



          $AB<0$



          This is true when $A<0$ and $B>0$ because $-vetimes +ve=-ve$ or when $A>0$ and $B<0$ because $+vetimes -ve=-ve$.



          Similarly



          $$(x+1)(x-3)<0$$



          Either when $x+1<0$ and $x-3>0$ or when $x+1>0$ and $x-3<0$. The former statement is absurd as there exist no real number which is less than $-1$ as well as greater than $3$. Hence the answer is $xin (-1,3)$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            This finally starting to make sense, but I have one more question : in the statement (x+1(x-3)<0 is it correct to divide both sides by x to get -3<0?
            $endgroup$
            – Ubaid Hassan
            Apr 12 at 13:22











          • $begingroup$
            @UbaidHassan its not sensible to divide by $x$ until and unless you know whether $x$ is positive, negative or zero. And even if you somehow know what x is, i don't know how you will get -3<0?
            $endgroup$
            – Loop Back
            Apr 13 at 7:16















          4












          $begingroup$

          Ok I get your point.



          Let's first assume



          $$x^2-2x-3=0$$



          $$(x+1)(x-3)=0$$



          This is true when $x=-1$ or when $x=3$. That is, by equating each of the linear term with $0$ one by one.



          Now let's come to



          $$(x+1)(x-3)<0$$



          So you are asking, to solve this why don't we do the same thing again, i.e. one by one making both the linear terms less than $0$.



          But that's not the correct way to do it, because multiplying two negative numbers yields a positive number.



          Suppose there are two variables $A$ and $B$ and it is given that,



          $AB<0$



          This is true when $A<0$ and $B>0$ because $-vetimes +ve=-ve$ or when $A>0$ and $B<0$ because $+vetimes -ve=-ve$.



          Similarly



          $$(x+1)(x-3)<0$$



          Either when $x+1<0$ and $x-3>0$ or when $x+1>0$ and $x-3<0$. The former statement is absurd as there exist no real number which is less than $-1$ as well as greater than $3$. Hence the answer is $xin (-1,3)$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            This finally starting to make sense, but I have one more question : in the statement (x+1(x-3)<0 is it correct to divide both sides by x to get -3<0?
            $endgroup$
            – Ubaid Hassan
            Apr 12 at 13:22











          • $begingroup$
            @UbaidHassan its not sensible to divide by $x$ until and unless you know whether $x$ is positive, negative or zero. And even if you somehow know what x is, i don't know how you will get -3<0?
            $endgroup$
            – Loop Back
            Apr 13 at 7:16













          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          Ok I get your point.



          Let's first assume



          $$x^2-2x-3=0$$



          $$(x+1)(x-3)=0$$



          This is true when $x=-1$ or when $x=3$. That is, by equating each of the linear term with $0$ one by one.



          Now let's come to



          $$(x+1)(x-3)<0$$



          So you are asking, to solve this why don't we do the same thing again, i.e. one by one making both the linear terms less than $0$.



          But that's not the correct way to do it, because multiplying two negative numbers yields a positive number.



          Suppose there are two variables $A$ and $B$ and it is given that,



          $AB<0$



          This is true when $A<0$ and $B>0$ because $-vetimes +ve=-ve$ or when $A>0$ and $B<0$ because $+vetimes -ve=-ve$.



          Similarly



          $$(x+1)(x-3)<0$$



          Either when $x+1<0$ and $x-3>0$ or when $x+1>0$ and $x-3<0$. The former statement is absurd as there exist no real number which is less than $-1$ as well as greater than $3$. Hence the answer is $xin (-1,3)$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Ok I get your point.



          Let's first assume



          $$x^2-2x-3=0$$



          $$(x+1)(x-3)=0$$



          This is true when $x=-1$ or when $x=3$. That is, by equating each of the linear term with $0$ one by one.



          Now let's come to



          $$(x+1)(x-3)<0$$



          So you are asking, to solve this why don't we do the same thing again, i.e. one by one making both the linear terms less than $0$.



          But that's not the correct way to do it, because multiplying two negative numbers yields a positive number.



          Suppose there are two variables $A$ and $B$ and it is given that,



          $AB<0$



          This is true when $A<0$ and $B>0$ because $-vetimes +ve=-ve$ or when $A>0$ and $B<0$ because $+vetimes -ve=-ve$.



          Similarly



          $$(x+1)(x-3)<0$$



          Either when $x+1<0$ and $x-3>0$ or when $x+1>0$ and $x-3<0$. The former statement is absurd as there exist no real number which is less than $-1$ as well as greater than $3$. Hence the answer is $xin (-1,3)$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Apr 12 at 11:01

























          answered Apr 12 at 10:56









          Loop BackLoop Back

          44312




          44312











          • $begingroup$
            This finally starting to make sense, but I have one more question : in the statement (x+1(x-3)<0 is it correct to divide both sides by x to get -3<0?
            $endgroup$
            – Ubaid Hassan
            Apr 12 at 13:22











          • $begingroup$
            @UbaidHassan its not sensible to divide by $x$ until and unless you know whether $x$ is positive, negative or zero. And even if you somehow know what x is, i don't know how you will get -3<0?
            $endgroup$
            – Loop Back
            Apr 13 at 7:16
















          • $begingroup$
            This finally starting to make sense, but I have one more question : in the statement (x+1(x-3)<0 is it correct to divide both sides by x to get -3<0?
            $endgroup$
            – Ubaid Hassan
            Apr 12 at 13:22











          • $begingroup$
            @UbaidHassan its not sensible to divide by $x$ until and unless you know whether $x$ is positive, negative or zero. And even if you somehow know what x is, i don't know how you will get -3<0?
            $endgroup$
            – Loop Back
            Apr 13 at 7:16















          $begingroup$
          This finally starting to make sense, but I have one more question : in the statement (x+1(x-3)<0 is it correct to divide both sides by x to get -3<0?
          $endgroup$
          – Ubaid Hassan
          Apr 12 at 13:22





          $begingroup$
          This finally starting to make sense, but I have one more question : in the statement (x+1(x-3)<0 is it correct to divide both sides by x to get -3<0?
          $endgroup$
          – Ubaid Hassan
          Apr 12 at 13:22













          $begingroup$
          @UbaidHassan its not sensible to divide by $x$ until and unless you know whether $x$ is positive, negative or zero. And even if you somehow know what x is, i don't know how you will get -3<0?
          $endgroup$
          – Loop Back
          Apr 13 at 7:16




          $begingroup$
          @UbaidHassan its not sensible to divide by $x$ until and unless you know whether $x$ is positive, negative or zero. And even if you somehow know what x is, i don't know how you will get -3<0?
          $endgroup$
          – Loop Back
          Apr 13 at 7:16











          6












          $begingroup$

          Hint: Sketch the graph of $x²-2x -3$. Notice that it is zero when $x=-1$ and $x=3$. Then consider the following areas: $(-infty,-1)$, $(-1,3)$ and $(3,infty)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$

















            6












            $begingroup$

            Hint: Sketch the graph of $x²-2x -3$. Notice that it is zero when $x=-1$ and $x=3$. Then consider the following areas: $(-infty,-1)$, $(-1,3)$ and $(3,infty)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$















              6












              6








              6





              $begingroup$

              Hint: Sketch the graph of $x²-2x -3$. Notice that it is zero when $x=-1$ and $x=3$. Then consider the following areas: $(-infty,-1)$, $(-1,3)$ and $(3,infty)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              Hint: Sketch the graph of $x²-2x -3$. Notice that it is zero when $x=-1$ and $x=3$. Then consider the following areas: $(-infty,-1)$, $(-1,3)$ and $(3,infty)$.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Apr 12 at 10:42









              Tim DiklandTim Dikland

              44319




              44319





















                  3












                  $begingroup$

                  Option:



                  Completing the square:



                  $(x-1)^2-4<0;$



                  $(x-1)^2 <4;$



                  $|x-1| <2;$



                  $-1 < x <3.$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$

















                    3












                    $begingroup$

                    Option:



                    Completing the square:



                    $(x-1)^2-4<0;$



                    $(x-1)^2 <4;$



                    $|x-1| <2;$



                    $-1 < x <3.$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$















                      3












                      3








                      3





                      $begingroup$

                      Option:



                      Completing the square:



                      $(x-1)^2-4<0;$



                      $(x-1)^2 <4;$



                      $|x-1| <2;$



                      $-1 < x <3.$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      Option:



                      Completing the square:



                      $(x-1)^2-4<0;$



                      $(x-1)^2 <4;$



                      $|x-1| <2;$



                      $-1 < x <3.$







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Apr 12 at 11:08









                      Peter SzilasPeter Szilas

                      12k2822




                      12k2822





















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          No, because of the rule of signs.



                          Anyway, there's a theorem on the sign of quadratic polynomials:




                          Let $ax^2+bx+censpace (ane0$) a quadrattic polynomial with real coefficients. Then $ax^2+bx+c$ has the sign of $a$, except between its (real) roots, if any.







                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$

















                            0












                            $begingroup$

                            No, because of the rule of signs.



                            Anyway, there's a theorem on the sign of quadratic polynomials:




                            Let $ax^2+bx+censpace (ane0$) a quadrattic polynomial with real coefficients. Then $ax^2+bx+c$ has the sign of $a$, except between its (real) roots, if any.







                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$















                              0












                              0








                              0





                              $begingroup$

                              No, because of the rule of signs.



                              Anyway, there's a theorem on the sign of quadratic polynomials:




                              Let $ax^2+bx+censpace (ane0$) a quadrattic polynomial with real coefficients. Then $ax^2+bx+c$ has the sign of $a$, except between its (real) roots, if any.







                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$



                              No, because of the rule of signs.



                              Anyway, there's a theorem on the sign of quadratic polynomials:




                              Let $ax^2+bx+censpace (ane0$) a quadrattic polynomial with real coefficients. Then $ax^2+bx+c$ has the sign of $a$, except between its (real) roots, if any.








                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Apr 12 at 10:44









                              BernardBernard

                              124k742117




                              124k742117





















                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  $$ab<0iff a<0land b<0$$ is wrong. You can easily find counterexamples.



                                  The truth is



                                  $$ab<0iff (a<0land b>0)lor(a>0land b<0).$$



                                  A product is negative when the factors have opposite signs.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$

















                                    0












                                    $begingroup$

                                    $$ab<0iff a<0land b<0$$ is wrong. You can easily find counterexamples.



                                    The truth is



                                    $$ab<0iff (a<0land b>0)lor(a>0land b<0).$$



                                    A product is negative when the factors have opposite signs.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$















                                      0












                                      0








                                      0





                                      $begingroup$

                                      $$ab<0iff a<0land b<0$$ is wrong. You can easily find counterexamples.



                                      The truth is



                                      $$ab<0iff (a<0land b>0)lor(a>0land b<0).$$



                                      A product is negative when the factors have opposite signs.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$



                                      $$ab<0iff a<0land b<0$$ is wrong. You can easily find counterexamples.



                                      The truth is



                                      $$ab<0iff (a<0land b>0)lor(a>0land b<0).$$



                                      A product is negative when the factors have opposite signs.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Apr 12 at 12:18









                                      Yves DaoustYves Daoust

                                      133k676232




                                      133k676232



























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